The Holy Tongue (LaShon HaKadosh) - Parashat Ki Tavo
Was there a primordial (first) language that everyone spoke?
During the first half of the 13th century, in order to discover the language of God, the Holy Roman Emperor Frederick II conducted a series of experiments on young children. He would take an infant and have it imprisoned from birth, with hardly any human contact, in order to see if the growing child would naturally begin to speak the language first given to Adam and Eve. The monk Salimbene of Parma writes, in his Chronicles, that Frederick ordered nurses, "to suckle and bathe and wash the children, but in no ways to prattle or speak with them; for he would have learnt whether they would speak the Hebrew language, which had been the first...'
This disturbing experiment would be repeated, two centuries later, by James IV of Scotland, who sent two children to be raised on an island by a mute woman. "Some sayes they spak guid Hebrew," writes Robert Lindsay, in The Cronicles of Scotland, though he seems rather dubious that this could have been the case.
Where did Frederick and James get such a notion - that there was a Primary language at all, and that it was probably Hebrew? Likely, they took their cue from a literal reading of Genesis, Chapter 11, verse 1 - the opening of the Tower of Babel story - in which we read that:
(א) וַיְהִ֥י כׇל־הָאָ֖רֶץ שָׂפָ֣ה אֶחָ֑ת וּדְבָרִ֖ים אֲחָדִֽים׃


(1) Everyone on earth had the same language and the same words.


How did the Rabbis of the Talmud understand the idea of language development and the above verse?
"Rabbi Elazar and Rabbi Yochanan disagreed. One said that they spoke seventy languages, and the other said that they spoke the language of the Great One: The Holy Tongue." (Jerusalem Talmud, Megilah 10a)

"This means that everyone understood the language of his fellow, each through their words were "singular," in that each one had his own language." (Rabbi Menachem Mendel Kasher, Torah Sheleimah)

Rashi expounds a line from Parashat Ki Tavo (Deut. 27:8) as well an earlier verse in Deuteronomy to give a vision of our linguistic origins:
(ה) בְּעֵ֥בֶר הַיַּרְדֵּ֖ן בְּאֶ֣רֶץ מוֹאָ֑ב הוֹאִ֣יל מֹשֶׁ֔ה בֵּאֵ֛ר אֶת־הַתּוֹרָ֥ה הַזֹּ֖את לֵאמֹֽר׃


(5) On the other side of the Jordan, in the land of Moab, Moses undertook to expound this Teaching. He said:


באר את התורה. בְּשִׁבְעִים לָשׁוֹן פֵּרְשָׁהּ לָהֶם (תנחומא; ע' סוטה ל"ב):

באר את התורה [MOSES BEGAN] TO EXPLAIN THIS LAW — in the seventy languages of the ancient world did he explain it to them (Midrash Tanchuma, Devarim 2; Genesis Rabbah 49; cf. Sotah 32a and Rashi on Deuteronomy 27:8).

(ח) וְכָתַבְתָּ֣ עַל־הָאֲבָנִ֗ים אֶֽת־כׇּל־דִּבְרֵ֛י הַתּוֹרָ֥ה הַזֹּ֖את בַּאֵ֥ר הֵיטֵֽב׃ {ס}

(8) And on those stones you shall inscribe every word of this Teaching most distinctly.

באר היטב. בְּשִׁבְעִים לָשׁוֹן (שם ל"ב):
באר היטב EXPLAINING THEM WELL — i.e. in seventy languages (Sotah 32a; cf. Rashi on Deuteronomy 1:5).
Here is where Rashi derives this from: Midrash Tanchuma - The Holy Blessed One said: behold - the First Person, Adam, who had not been taught anything, how do we konw that he spoke seventy languages? For it says, "And Adam called [all the animals] names." (Gen. 2:20). It does not say Adam called each animal 'a name,' but 'names.' And now you, Moses, who said, "I am not a man of words," at the end of this forty years after leaving Egypt, you will begin to explain this Torah in seventy languages. As it says, "And Moses expounded (be'er) this Torah."
Not everyone agrees with this: Rabbi Ya'akov Tzvi Mecklenburg (a passionate Hebraist in HaKtav v'HaKabbalah, "Rashi, borrowing from our rabbis, says that Moses explained the Torah in 70 languages. But they cannot mean that he worte it in the languages of other nations! For what would be the purpose of that for Israel?! No, the rabbis would not change their language so that it could be spoken by some other nation. Rather, it is the way of the rabbis to refer to 'intention - kavannah' (also means direction) with the word 'language'... and so , too, here: "seventy languages," is "seventy intentions (kavannot).'"
D'var Acher - yet another idea (are you seeing the idea that "the Torah speaks in 70 languages," yet?)
Rabbi Yitzchak of Berdichev in his Kedushat Levi first points out that the Torah itself contains fragments of Aramaic, Greek and some African languages, so even the original text is not linguistically "pure." Then he explains, "And the reason for this is that the language of every nation is the life-force of that nation. Hebrew, the Holy Tongue, is the distinct language of Israel. And indeed, they heard first the Torah at Mount Sinai in the Holy Tongue. But the Holy Blessed One, who sees from beginning to end, saw that Israel would have to be in exile, and so for this reason wrote into the Torah the languages of all nations. So that, through this, they would have the ability to hold on to the life-force of each one, through the language of the Holy Torah, in order for Israel to be able to survive in exile."
How, according to Levi Yitzchak (and for us) has Torah allowed us to survive in the Diaspora and how does the language of the Torah allow us to find a foothold in each country in which we have lived?